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Call charged when shouldn't have been

Mav
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Registered: ‎06-04-2007

Re: Call charged when shouldn't have been

The possibility of a charge being levied even though the call is not answered by the receiving party or their voicemail should be made clearer in the T&C or, better still, no charge should be levied in these instances.
Quote from: Townman
That said, there is a cost to route the call and connect it to the handset, so there is a valid argument for a service provision charge being levied.

I think I mentioned before that a friend who was quite high up in BT years ago told me that that it was deemed against the T&C to use the phone simple to ring someone with the intention of not having the call answered. But, apparently, it was too complicated to enforce.

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Townman
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Re: Call charged when shouldn't have been

<pedant mode>stating that some thing is valid as an argument is not the same as saying its implementation is justifiable</pedant mode>
The point I sought to make is that a service is being derived from the infrastructure with an intent of not paying for the benefit of that service.
Quote from: Anotherone
I think most people are aware, that an answering signal is required from the "called" party to initiate charging.

I rather think that is the crux of the matter, most people do not know this - they believe charging initiation is a function of the billing agent, even when (like PlusNET) the billing agent has no access to the costing infrastructure.  This is not an unreasonable expectation, indeed for a long time, I thought this was the case - calling system answers the call and when it detects remote end off hook, it starts billing.  How else was a pay phone supposed to function?  Cheesy
You and I now clearly know better however the post was.intended for those who have yet to realise the truth of this.

Superusers are not staff, but they do have a direct line of communication into the business in order to raise issues, concerns and feedback from the community.

jelv
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Re: Call charged when shouldn't have been

There is an awful lot of nonsense being posted in this topic! Sad
The issue has been very clearly summarised by Townman. A number is dialled and the BTw system forwards the call on to the mobile network. The mobile network for whatever reason have 'answered' the call. The mobile network is charging BTw who are in turn charging Plusnet. In those circumstances it is totally right that Plusnet charge for the call. Plusnet do not have the information to tell the difference between a call which was answered by the handset and then immediately disconnected and one that went to the voice mailbox, so saying Plusnet should not be charging is totally ridiculous.
If anyone is unhappy about this they should be kicking up a fuss on the forums belonging to the mobile phone network - not on here as it is totally out of Plusnet's control.
jelv (a.k.a Spoon Whittler)
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Anotherone
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Re: Call charged when shouldn't have been

You are right, a lot of rubbish has been posted by various. Most of which is because of ignorance as to how the system works. Whilst I might well agree with the first point and last point there John, I do not agree with your remark that Townman clearly summarised it. In fact his post totally went off topic introducing irrelevant points about VoIP and that there could be some justification for a charge, and clouded the issue, and it has nothing to do with what Mav was on about in his OP.  And now payphones get brought into the subject Roll_eyes
I have sought to clarify that if a mobile phone in particular has it's Voicemail/Answerphone turned ON, then if the phone is OFF, or out of signal or loses signal before being answered, or is engaged at the outset, then the Voicemail will answer the call and the caller will be charged irrespective of whether they hang up before hearing anything. That can equally apply to someone calling a landline that is engaged, that has the 1571 service - it goes straight to the 1571 answerphone. It's as simple as that.
IMHO there is nothing more to it, there's no need of any clarification in Ts&Cs either.
Quote from: Mav
The possibility of a charge being levied even though the call is not answered by the receiving party or their voicemail should be made clearer in the T&C ...........

There is no possibility of that unless there is some sort of fault.  A lot of people however may think that unless they hear someone answer or an answer machine/voicemail they haven't been charged and blame the billing provider. That's where they are mistaken, see my bold above.
When it comes to public payphones, when the called party answers (by any of the means already mentioned) a signal is then sent to the calling exchange which in turn sends a line reversal back to the payphone which initiates the payphone charging.